Is God a Spirit?

Cherry-Picking in the Orchard of God's Word: John 4:24 by Darryl L. Barksdale.

(excerpt)
Luke 24:39 as a "Proof-text" of a Literal Interpretation of John 4:24
As cited in some of the passages gleaned from anti-Mormon works, Luke 24:39 is often used to support their literal interpretation of John 4:24. The passage reads:

"Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: Handle me and see, for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have." (Luke 24:39)

This passage raises an entirely new set of problems for those who would interpret John 4:24 literally. Believers of the "God is Spirit" doctrine also usually hold to the doctrine that Jesus is the same ontological being (albeit with a different personality) as God the Father. If God is only a Spirit, then Jesus Christ is obviously not God, since he is not only a spirit. He has a resurrected, glorified body of flesh and bone as well as a spirit. He ate a piece of broiled fish and a honeycomb to prove it, as well as inviting His disciples to come forward and feel His hands and side. If God is truly only a spirit, then Jesus Christ could not be Him. "For a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have."

Another interesting problem is explaining why Christ, who they believe to be "fully God," could have a spirit and a glorified, resurrected body, and clearly be "fully God," while they deny the same possibility of the Father.

And finally, the most profound passage in relation to this issue is found in the epistle to the Hebrews, where Christ's glorified, resurrected body is called the "express image" of the Father's person: "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person." (Hebrews 1:1-3)

How could Christ be the "express image of the Father's person" with a spirit and a glorified, resurrected body if the Father is only a spirit? If God, as [others] insist, does not have a face, how could Christ, who arguably did have one, be the "express image of [the Father's] person?"

[Many] even refute themselves..., when they assert that Christ is "fully God" and thus "as much God as is the Father," while at the same time admitting "The Father--who in his divine nature is spirit (as is Jesus in His divine nature)--never became incarnate (as Jesus became incarnate), and hence does not have a human body as does Jesus." ( Norman Geisler and Ron Rhodes, When Cultists Ask: A Popular Handbook on Cultic Misinterpretations (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Books, 1997), 284. How Did The "Spirit Only" Concept Evolve? Richard Hopkins theorizes that the vilification of anything material or physical was straight out of Greek Hellenistic neo-platonic thought. One of the earliest evidence we have of this misinterpretation of scripture is from both Philo of Alexandria and Tatian. In true Hellenistic form, Tatian writes "God is a spirit, not pervading matter, but the Maker of material spirits, and of the forms that are in matter; He is invisible, impalpable, being Himself the Father of both sensible and invisible things…" [Tatian, Address to the Greeks, as quoted in Richard R. Hopkins, Biblical Mormonism: Responding to Evangelical Criticism of LDS Theology (Bountiful, Utah: Horizon Publishers, 1994), 131.] As Hopkins points out, Tatian, of course, fell into apostasy as a natural result of this and other heretical theologies he espoused. For example, Tatian was largely responsible for promoting the Gnostic Basilides' doctrine of creation ex nihilo (creation out of nothing). Tatian, born a pagan who converted to Christianity in AD 150, later left the Church to form a Gnostic group. [Barry R. Bickmore, Restoring the Ancient Church: Joseph Smith and Early Christianity (Ben Lomond, California: Foundation for Apologetic Information and Research, 1999), 100-101.])

1 comment:

Charles Pettibone said...

That Jesus lives in a glorified and resurrected body is a cardinal Christian teaching found in the creeds and confessions. What do you think the Ecumenical Councils were about except explaining how the eternal existence of Christ as God the Son coheres and relates to His assumption and glorification of humanity? It's not as if these are cutting questions. They are at the core of the whole tradition.

Nothing in the divine life precludes a hypostasis of the Trinity (not a "personality" but a distinct divine Person) from assuming the humanity which He fashioned. That is exactly what He did. It does not make the two natures identical. It means that the divine hypostasis enhypostasizes the human nature. Look, I'm working on my second Master's in Christian History and Theology right now from Duke. My first was from Notre Dame. I don't say that for any reason except to try to get you to hear what I'm about to say: posts like this are profoundly sophomoric and do a great disservice to your broader agenda.

(I'm Eastern Orthodox and the history of deification from the biblical through to the medieval Byzantine period is my academic specialty.)